AD 2022-11-03
Applicability
| Type | Manufacturer | Model | Details |
|---|---|---|---|
| aircraft | Airbus | SAS | Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes |
| aircraft | Aviat | Various | Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes |
Unsafe Condition
The faulty FCGS X13 standard could lead to loss of control of the elevator surfaces, possibly resulting in loss of control of the airplane.
AI-generated summary from the source AD text. Verify against the official source before acting.
Required Actions
Revising the Limitations and Normal Procedures sections of the existing AFM, and revising the operator's existing FAA-approved MEL by incorporating MMEL provisions, to include limitations and procedures to mitigate the risk of elevator failure during flare.
AI-generated summary from the source AD text. Verify against the official source before acting.
Affected Aircraft
Airbus SAS Model A350-941 and -1041 airplanes.
AI-generated summary from the source AD text. Verify against the official source before acting.
Document Text
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30402 Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 97 / Thursday, May 19, 2022 / Rules and Regulations § 40.160–3 Reporting of inventions. * * * * * (b) A final invention report is required within 120 days after completion of the project period as provided in 2 CFR 200.344. * * * * * ■ 59. Revise § 40.160–4 to read as follows: § 40.160–4 Equipment report. As provided in 2 CFR 200.344 within 120 days of the completion or termination of a project, the grantee will submit a listing of all items of Equipment as defined at 2 CFR 200.1. ■ 60. Revise § 40.160–5 to read as follows: § 40.160–5 Final report. The grantee shall submit a draft of the final report for review no later than 90 days prior to the end of the approved project period. The report shall document project activities over the entire period of grant support and shall describe the grantee’s achievements with respect to stated project purposes and objectives. The report shall set forth in complete detail all technical aspects of the projects, both negative and positive, grantee’s findings, conclusions, and results, including, as applicable, an evaluation of the technical effectiveness and economic feasibility of the methods or techniques investigated or demonstrated. The final report shall include EPA comment when required by the grants officer. Within 120 days of the end of the project period, one reproducible copy suitable for printing and such other copies as may be stipulated in the grant agreement shall be transmitted to the grants officer as required by 2 CFR 200.344. PART 45—TRAINING ASSISTANCE ■ 61. The authority citation for part 45 continues to read as follows: Authority: Sec. 103 of the Clean Air Act, as amended ( 42 U.S.C. 7403 ), secs. 104(g), 109, and 111 of the Clean Water Act, as amended ( 33 U.S.C. 1254(g), 1259, and 1261 ), secs. 7007 and 8001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended ( 42 U.S.C. 6977 and 6981 ); sec. 1442 of the Safe Drinking Water Act, as amended ( 42 U.S.C. 300j–1 ). 2 CFR part 200. ■ 62. Amend § 45.130 by revising paragraph (a) introductory text, to read as follows: § 45.130 Evaluation of applications. (a) Consistent with 2 CFR 200.205, the appropriate EPA program office staff will review training applications in accordance with the following criteria: * * * * * ■ 63. Revise § 45.140 to read as follows: § 45.140 Budget and project period. The budget and project periods for training awards will be specified in the terms of the awards as provided by 2 CFR 200.211. ■ 64. Revise § 45.150 to read as follows: § 45.150 Reports. (a) Recipients must submit the reports required in 2 CFR 200.328 and 200.329. (b) A draft of the final project report is required 90 days before the end of the project period. The recipient shall prepare the final projects report in accordance with the project officer’s instructions and submit the final project report within 120 days after the end of the project period as provided in 2 CFR 200.344. PART 46—FELLOWSHIPS ■ 65. The authority citation for part 46 is revised to read as follows: Authority: Section 103(b)(5) of the Clean Air Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 7403(b)(5)); sections 104(b)(5) and (g)(3)(B) of the Clean Water Act, as amended (33 U.S.C. 1254(b)(5) and (g)(3)(B)); section 1442 of the Safe Drinking Water Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 300j–1); section 8001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6981); section 10 of the Toxic Substances Control Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 2609); section 20 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, as amended (7 U.S.C. 136r); sections 104(k)(7) and 311 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9604(k)(7) and 42 U.S.C. 9660). 2 CFR part 200 and 2 CFR part 1500. ■ 66. Revise § 46.105(g) to read as follows: § 46.105 Authority. * * * * * (g) Sections 104(k)(7) and 311 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9604(k)(7) and 42 U.S.C. 9660). PART 47—NATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION ACT GRANTS ■ 67. The authority citation for part 47 continues to read as follows: Authority: 20 U.S.C. 5505. 2 CFR part 200. ■ 68. Revise § 47.130(c) to read as follows: § 47.130 Performance of grant. * * * * * (c) Procurement procedures for all recipients are described in 2 CFR part 200 subpart D—Post Federal Award Requirements (2 CFR 200.317 through 200.327). These procedures include provisions for small purchase procedures. [FR Doc. 2022–09725 Filed 5–18–22; 8:45 am] BILLING CODE 6560–50–P DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION Federal Aviation Administration 14 CFR Part 39 [Docket No. FAA–2022–0585; Project Identifier MCAI–2022–00603–T; Amendment 39–22053; AD 2022–11–03] RIN 2120–AA64 Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes AGENCY : Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT. ACTION : Final rule; request for comments. SUMMARY : The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus SAS Model A350–941 and –1041 airplanes. This AD was prompted by an indication that both elevator actuators of the PRIMary flight control computers (PRIMs) were considered faulty due to incorrect instructions with a new PRIM standard. This AD requires revising the existing airplane flight manual (AFM), and revising the operator’s existing FAA-approved minimum equipment list (MEL) by incorporating certain master minimum equipment list (MMEL) provisions, to include limitations and procedures to mitigate the risk of elevator failure during flare, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) Emergency AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. DATES : This AD becomes effective June 3, 2022. The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publications listed in this AD as of June 3, 2022. The FAA must receive comments on this AD by July 5, 2022. ADDRESSES : You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods: • Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov . Follow the instructions for submitting comments. • Fax: 202–493–2251. • Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M– 30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12–140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. VerDate Sep<11>2014 16:22 May 18, 2022 Jkt 256001 PO 00000 Frm 00010 Fmt 4700 Sfmt 4700 E:\FR\FM\19MYR1.SGM 19MYR1 jspears on DSK121TN23PROD with RULES1 30403 Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 97 / Thursday, May 19, 2022 / Rules and Regulations • Hand Delivery: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M– 30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12–140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. For material incorporated by reference (IBR) in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad- Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email ADs@easa.europa.eu ; internet www.easa.europa.eu . You may find this IBR material on the EASA website at https://ad.easa.europa.eu . You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206–231–3195. It is also available in the AD docket at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA–2022–0585. Examining the AD Docket You may examine the AD docket at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA–2022–0585; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above. FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT : Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone 206–231–3225; email Dan.Rodina@faa.gov . SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION : Comments Invited The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under ADDRESSES . Include ‘‘Docket No. FAA–2022–0585; Project Identifier MCAI–2022–00603–T’’ at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments. Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to https:// www.regulations.gov, including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule. Confidential Business Information CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as ‘‘PROPIN.’’ The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone 206–231– 3225; email Dan.Rodina@faa.gov . Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking. Background EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E, dated May 5, 2022 (EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus SAS Model A350–941 and –1041 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of PRIMs that indicated that both elevator actuators were considered faulty. Subsequent investigations identified incorrect instructions that had been implemented with the introduction of the PRIM P13 standard, which is part of the flight control and guidance system (FCGS) X13 standard installed in airplanes in production through Airbus modification 115496 and in service through Airbus Service Bulletin A350– 42–P017. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the faulty FCGS X13 standard, which could lead to loss of control of the elevator surfaces, possibly resulting in loss of control of the airplane. See the MCAI for additional background information. Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51 EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E specifies procedures for revising the Limitations and Normal Procedures sections of the existing AFM, and revising the operator’s existing FAA- approved MEL by incorporating MMEL provisions, to include limitations and procedures to mitigate the risk of elevator failure during flare. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the ADDRESSES section. FAA’s Determination These products have been approved by the aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA’s bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI described above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs. Requirements of This AD This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E requires operators to revise the AFM and ‘‘inform all flight crews, and, thereafter, operate the aeroplane accordingly.’’ However, this AD does not specifically require those actions as those actions are already required by FAA regulations. FAA regulations require operators furnish to pilots any changes to the AFM (for example, 14 CFR 121.137), and to ensure the pilots are familiar with the AFM (for example, 14 CFR 91.505). As with any other flightcrew training requirement, training on the updated AFM content is tracked by the operators and recorded in each pilot’s training record, which is available for the FAA to review. FAA regulations also require pilots to follow the procedures in the existing AFM including all updates. 14 CFR 91.9 requires that any person operating a civil aircraft must comply with the operating limitations specified in the AFM. Therefore, including a requirement in this AD to operate the airplane according to the revised AFM would be redundant and unnecessary. Similarly, EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E specifies amending the VerDate Sep<11>2014 16:22 May 18, 2022 Jkt 256001 PO 00000 Frm 00011 Fmt 4700 Sfmt 4700 E:\FR\FM\19MYR1.SGM 19MYR1 jspears on DSK121TN23PROD with RULES1 30404 Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 97 / Thursday, May 19, 2022 / Rules and Regulations operator’s MEL and, thereafter, ‘‘operating the aeroplane accordingly.’’ However, this AD does not include specific operating requirements as they are already required by FAA regulations. FAA regulations (14 CFR 121.628(a)(2)) require operators to provide pilots with access to all of the information contained in the operator’s minimum equipment list (MEL). Furthermore, 14 CFR 121.628(a)(5) requires airplanes to be operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the operator’s MEL. Therefore, including a requirement in this AD to operate the airplane according to the revised MEL would be redundant and unnecessary. Explanation of Required Compliance Information In the FAA’s ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E is incorporated by reference in this AD. This AD requires compliance with EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to ‘‘all required actions and compliance times,’’ compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled ‘‘Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)’’ in EASA Emergency AD 2022– 0079–E. Service information required by EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E for compliance will be available at https:// www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA–2022– 0585 after this AD is published. Interim Action The FAA considers this AD interim action. If final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking then. FAA’s Justification and Determination of the Effective Date Section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 et seq. ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for ‘‘good cause,’’ finds that those procedures are ‘‘impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.’’ Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause. An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD without providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adoption. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies forgoing notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because incorrect logic in the PRIMs may cause the PRIM computers to inadvertently lose control over their respective elevator actuators during flare phase, depending on flight conditions, potentially affecting every flight and possibly resulting in loss of control of the airplane in a critical phase of flight. Given the significance of the risk presented by this unsafe condition, it must be immediately addressed. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and contrary to the public interest pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B). In addition, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days, for the same reasons the FAA found good cause to forgo notice and comment. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) The requirements of the RFA do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required. Costs of Compliance The FAA estimates that this AD affects 30 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD: E STIMATED C OSTS FOR R EQUIRED A CTIONS Labor cost Parts cost Cost per product Cost on U.S. operators 1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85 .............................................................................................. $0 $85 $2,550 Authority for This Rulemaking Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA’s authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency’s authority. The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action. Regulatory Findings This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD: (1) Is not a ‘‘significant regulatory action’’ under Executive Order 12866, and (2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39 Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety. The Amendment Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows: VerDate Sep<11>2014 16:22 May 18, 2022 Jkt 256001 PO 00000 Frm 00012 Fmt 4700 Sfmt 4700 E:\FR\FM\19MYR1.SGM 19MYR1 jspears on DSK121TN23PROD with RULES1 30405 Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 97 / Thursday, May 19, 2022 / Rules and Regulations PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES ■ 1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows: Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701. § 39.13 [Amended] ■ 2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive: 2022–11–03 Airbus SAS: Amendment 39– 22053; Docket No. FAA–2022–0585; Project Identifier MCAI–2022–00603–T. (a) Effective Date This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective June 3, 2022. (b) Affected ADs None. (c) Applicability This AD applies to Airbus SAS Model A350–941 and –1041 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) Emergency AD 2022–0079–E, dated May 5, 2022 (EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E). (d) Subject Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight controls. (e) Unsafe Condition This AD was prompted by an indication that both elevator actuators of the PRIMary flight control computers (PRIMs) were considered faulty due to incorrect instructions with a new PRIM standard. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the faulty standard, which could lead to loss of control of the elevator surfaces, possibly resulting in loss of control of the airplane. (f) Compliance Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done. (g) Requirements Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E. (h) Exceptions to EASA Emergency AD 2022– 0079–E (1) Where EASA Emergency AD 2022– 0079–E refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD. (2) Where paragraph (1) of EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E specifies to ‘‘inform all flight crews, and, thereafter, operate the aeroplane accordingly,’’ this AD does not require those actions as those actions are already required by existing FAA operating regulations. (3) Where paragraph (3) of EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E specifies to ‘‘implement the instructions of the MER, as defined in [the EASA Emergency] AD,’’ for this AD replace that phrase with ‘‘revise the operator’s existing FAA-approved minimum equipment list (MEL) to incorporate the instructions of the MER.’’ (4) Where paragraph (4) of EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E specifies ‘‘operating the aeroplane accordingly,’’ this AD does not require that action as that action is already required by existing FAA operating regulations. (5) The ‘‘Remarks’’ section of EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079–E does not apply to this AD. (i) Additional AD Provisions The following provisions also apply to this AD: (1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 9-AVS-AIR- 730-AMOC@faa.gov . Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office. (2) Contacting the Manufacturer: For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS’s EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature. (j) Related Information For more information about this AD, contact Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone 206–231– 3225; email Dan.Rodina@faa.gov . (k) Material Incorporated by Reference (1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. (2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise. (i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) Emergency AD 2022–0079–E, dated May 5, 2022. (ii) [Reserved] (3) For EASA Emergency AD 2022–0079– E, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email ADs@easa.europa.eu ; internet www.easa.europa.eu . You may find this EASA AD on the EASA website at https://ad.easa.europa.eu . (4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206–231–3195. (5) You may view this material that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email fr.inspection@nara.gov, or go to https:// www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr- locations.html . Issued on May 13, 2022. Gaetano A. Sciortino, Deputy Director for Strategic Initiatives, Compliance & Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service. [FR Doc. 2022–10865 Filed 5–17–22; 4:15 pm] BILLING CODE 4910–13–P DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION Federal Aviation Administration 14 CFR Part 39 [Docket No. FAA–2022–0099; Project Identifier 2019–CE–019–AD; Amendment 39–22045; AD 2022–10–07] RIN 2120–AA64 Airworthiness Directives; Viking Air Limited (Type Certificate Previously Held by Bombardier, Inc. and de Havilland, Inc.) Airplanes AGENCY : Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT. ACTION : Final rule. SUMMARY : The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 89–24–06 R1, which applied to all Boeing of Canada, Ltd. and de Havilland (now Viking Air Limited) Model DHC–6–1, DHC–6–100, DHC–6–200, and DHC–6– 300 airplanes. AD 89–24–06 R1 required repetitively inspecting the elevator quadrant for damage and taking corrective action as necessary. Since the FAA issued AD 89–24–06 R1, Transport Canada, the aviation authority for Canada, revised its mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) to correct this unsafe condition on these products. This AD retains the actions required by AD 89–24–06 R1, extends the compliance time intervals for the repetitive inspections, adds Model DHC–6–400 airplanes to the applicability, and adds a fluorescent penetrant inspection requirement. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. DATES : This AD is effective June 23, 2022. The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of June 23, 2022. VerDate Sep<11>2014 16:22 May 18, 2022 Jkt 256001 PO 00000 Frm 00013 Fmt 4700 Sfmt 4700 E:\FR\FM\19MYR1.SGM 19MYR1 jspears on DSK121TN23PROD with RULES1
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